Submitted by chasli, Apr 2, 2007 23:54

Been thinking about this statement: "The king did not explain how Israel, with a population of about 5.5 million overwhelmingly Jewish people, could absorb and live with a sudden inflow of about 4 million Arab Muslims, many bent on destroying it." Does 80% rate as "overwhelmingly Jewish"? And post-partition Israel in 1948 had a mere 58% Jews. If Israel was so gung-ho about a Jewish homeland in 1948 with a bare majority Jewish, if their narrow majority in 1948 was such a brilliant idea, what's the problem with the return of 4 million Arab Muslims? Israel just can't have it both ways. If the return of the Arabs indigenous to Israel is such a bad idea, well then the formation of Israel with a 42% Arab population was also a bad idea. All this is of course the crux of the matter.

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