Submitted by Richard L, Mar 4, 2008 00:34

I am only now reading about the long established history of persecution of Jews in the Arab countries and am thankful that articles like these are published. My only objection to this article is: Why in the world did the writer have to use the word "cleanse" in refering to the expulsion of the Jewish community from those countries? One cleanses dirt. I find it highly offensive that the writer, and so many others, refer to expulsions and murders of groups as cleansing the area of those people. It is so obviously offensive to use that term that refers to cleaning away dirt in refering to people like Jews. Yes, I know, the term cleansing has been used by many, but it was originally used as a form of Orwelian doublespeak in masking the violent expulsion and murders of people. Why do these writers continue to whitewash the expulsion and discrimination by acting as if the areas are being cleansed, as in a bubblebath! They trivialize the events by using those whitewashed terms!!! Stop it NOW!!!

Note: Comments are screened, and in some cases edited, before posting. We reserve the right to reject anything we find objectionable.